Hi,

I need to develop a PC application that controls an ADSL modem. The
modem can be controlled by the application via its telnet interface.
The PC is connected to the modem via LAN.


The modem can act as a bridge or a router. Its address is fixed at
192.168.0.1, it also has a DHCP server that assigns the IP for the PC
running the application.


If the modem acts as a router, it will be the one to create the PPPoE
connection and the IP address of the PC connected to it will remain
unchanged. That means, the application will be able to contact the
modem using telnet because both will be on the same subnet.


What I can't understand is this:
If the modem acts as a bridge, the PC connected to it will initiate the

PPPoE connection. After the PPPoE has been established, the PC will
have a new IP address. How can it still be able to access the telnet
interface of the modem?


During PPPoE connection, does it also mean that the PC application will

use raw TCP/IP to talk to the modem, that is, packets will have no PPP
headers in them?


Thanks,
ennui